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Re: The Kaplan Inversion
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Leo Zelevinsky
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Aug 06, 2007 13:13 PDT
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My partner and I are playing:
1H 1S (1S by an unpassed hand): 1S is 0-4 spades and a forcing nt type hand
1N: clubs or a balanced hand
2C: diamonds
2D: hearts
2H: H+S
My partner has much more experience with this, it seems somewhat iffy
to me... But so far we have had no problems with the 1N rebid.
On 8/6/07, Alvin Bluthman <apblu-@aol.com> wrote:
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jerome keslin wrote:
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I apologize if this topic has already been discussed on the list.
I'd like to know if it is considered advantageous in the long run to
adopt this convention.
I have noticed that the 1NT rebid is played differently by certain
people.
Some play it as showing 4 spades, too weak to reverse.
Others suggest a more complicated scheme whereby the 1NT rebid shows
clubs, 2C shows D, 2D shows 6H, and 2H shows 4S and 5H.
Does anyone have any view about which scheme is "better".
Thanks,
Jerome.
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I've never seen your "more complicated scheme" before. I take it that
the bids you set out are opener's rebids to a 1S response (which would
deny spades and hence, is a variation on a "forcing 1NT"). Hence, this
scheme still relies on playing the inversion.
A question though: using this variation, how can opener rebid so as to
show a balanced 12-14 with five hearts (or must he open 1NT with that
hand)? How can he show a 15-17 with five hearts?
Alvin P. Bluthman
apblu-@aol.com
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